This is the page for our congregation to come together and share our thoughts.
So according to what you wrote, if a woman knows not a man for 7 months she is again virgin. I think I like that idea.
inkaboutit4u.com reply******** I done know about that idea, but I do know when a father sold his daughter as a virgin, the jewish proof was they had sex in the middle of the wedding day to proof she was a virgin by blood on the bed sheets. The Bloody sheet was given to the parents as proof they sold her as a virgin.
But today it does not matter if you are a virgin or not.
In Bible days Jewish girl were quick to have oral sex and anal sex to avoid vaginal sex so they would have blood from breading the hymen and their wedding day.
In SOS they were NOT married. Married man Solomon who had 140 wife’s and concubines trying to get the young girl to marry him they had lot sex play oral sex and maybe anal sex but no vaginal sex because her family and father made lots of money selling her as a virgin.
So ask yourself where were her parents when the single girl was have lot of nude sex play on her bed? Parents wanted her to sexual seduce a rich man so he would pay lot of money to buy her . So you can see that they encourage there daughter in sex play before marriage to so they end up making lot of money. Maybe the father taught the daughter how to have the sex play.
Maybe you should include some more biblical references into your writing.
There are lots of Biblical and other source references noted on my web site.
This is interesting to think that woman could leave her husband but her husband could not leave her.
Well she depended on him.
Inkaboutit4u.com reply********Maybe she could leave but i think she had to pay back the money that he bought her from her parents.
Accept in Ex 21:10-11
Ex 21:10 ” If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. 11 If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment. ”
This may be the reason that Jewish men who have a lot of wives LOAN them to other men to meet their sexual needs as in Ex 21:4
Bible Exodus 21:4 –“If his master gave him (servant) a wife (loans him one of his wives) while he was a slave, and they had sons or daughters, then the man (servant) will be free in the seventh year, but his (master’s loaner wife) wife and children will still belong to his master.”
What you wrote says that if you have sex with a prophetess the Lord appears. Not just anyone.
A prophetess is particularly skillful at that. Have a look at the chapter on Ecstasy in Greetings from Paradise. When Abraham got his servant to swear, that he would take a woman from his family and not a Canaanite for Isaac, he asked the servant to touch his testicles. In this state of arousal God is near and of course it is best to take an oath before God.
Please provide translations into other languages such as Spanish!
I’d love to do so, but I have too much to do. If there is someone who could, please, contact me.
Nova tradução: “Não cometerás adultério”
At last, sooemne comes up with the “right” answer!
A thought just came to me as I was re reading. If Adam means mankind and Eve means life. It has always been implied that God made one Adam and one eve. But maybe he made more than one man. He could have made ten men and ten women.
Some contend that the first woman was Lilith and Adam rejected her because she wanted to be on top. So he made a second woman and she was more acceptable to Adam.
I think Adam included women in Gen. 1: 27. Eve only occurs in Gen. 3: 20 and in Gen. 4: 1. All other times Genesis refers to the woman. Gen. 3: 20 reads really, ‘And the adam had called his woman’s name eve, but he was the mother of all living!’ This was after mankind had found out what makes women pregnant: the seed coming out of the penis. He was the mother, because the word father did not have today’s meaning yet. Gen. 4:1 can be variously interpreted. It might even mean that adam knew his wife and about life (eve), meaning why a woman became pregnant. Therefore he ‘knew’ his woman, meaning he wrapped her up with a head dress, castrated another couple of guys and said to them, ‘Now you watch out nobody touches this woman.’ Then he ‘knew’ that her child was also his child. That the child was named Cain just means there is now another type of man born through this. Cain means possession. These people had a restrictive sexuality in contrast to adam.
The woman didn’t like this either. That’s why she claimed, ‘I have gotten a man from the LORD,’ and not from the man! She refused to accept the knowledge, but it didn’t help.
Im grateful for the forum topic.Really looking forward to read more. Fantastic. Clancey
Today it would be very hard for a virgin to be pregnant without the world calling her a liar. She would not be stoned but she would be put down by church members, that is for sure. It is a good thing Jesus was born in the time he was. Today no one would believe any of it.
I find most all sexual term in the Bible have the wrong definition. If you look up all fornication verse and try hard to apply the definition you end up creating many contradiction and yo have to change the plan of salvation to accept Jesus as personal savior and have no sex out side one man, one female marriage. Which you work for you salvation . inkaboutit4u.com clear show the correct definition for fornication compare 1 Cor 10:8 to Num 25:1 – 9 Num 31 Fornication NOT = single sex, but it means joining in with worship of pagan fertility pagan god. Num 25: 1-9 Num 31.
Have a look in the ‘Did You Know’ tab at the essay on virginity.
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Greetings from Paradise
(Find out what the Bible really says about sex!)